RRB Nursing Superintendent Questions: 40 Important Nursing MCQs
Practise 40 RRB Nursing Superintendent questions with answers and short explanations across five nursing subjects, then move to a free full-length mock test to find your weak topics.
RRB Nursing Superintendent questions: start here
If you are juggling duty hours or family work with your study and feel you have little time left, these RRB Nursing Superintendent questions are the quickest way to find out where you really stand. This post gives you 40 nursing MCQs with answers and one-line explanations across fundamentals, medical-surgical, community health, midwifery and pharmacology. Solve them honestly, mark the topics you get wrong, and then move to a full-length mock test. Treat this as a quick check-up, not your whole revision.
Want to attempt a timed paper straight away? Start with the free mock test from the RRB Nursing Superintendent 2026 Full Test Series, then come back to these MCQs for revision.
How should I use these nursing MCQs with answers?
Do not just read the questions and nod. Cover the answer, pick one option in your head, and only then check. If you get it wrong, write that topic in a small notebook — that list becomes your revision plan.
Give yourself about 40 seconds per question, like in the real CBT. If one area, say pharmacology antidotes, keeps tripping you, that is your signal to revise that single chapter before touching anything new.
40 nursing MCQs with answers and explanations
Fundamentals of nursing MCQs
- The normal oral body temperature of a healthy adult is about?
- 36.1–37.2°C
- 34–35°C
- 38–39°C
- 40–41°C
Answer: 36.1–37.2°C. This is the accepted normal oral temperature range in an adult.
- The normal resting pulse rate of an adult (beats per minute) is?
- 60–100
- 40–60
- 100–140
- 120–160
Answer: 60–100. Below 60 is bradycardia and above 100 is tachycardia.
- The normal respiratory rate of an adult per minute is?
- 12–20
- 6–10
- 20–30
- 30–40
Answer: 12–20. A rate above 20 at rest needs attention.
- Which position is best for an unconscious patient to prevent aspiration?
- Lateral (recovery) position
- Supine flat
- High Fowler’s
- Trendelenburg
Answer: Lateral (recovery) position. It lets secretions drain out and keeps the airway clear.
- The first step of the nursing process is?
- Assessment
- Planning
- Evaluation
- Implementation
Answer: Assessment. You gather data first, before diagnosis, planning and action.
- The single most effective way to prevent the spread of infection is?
- Hand hygiene
- Giving antibiotics
- Wearing gloves only
- Isolating every patient
Answer: Hand hygiene. Proper hand washing breaks the chain of infection better than anything else.
- In Fowler’s position the head of the bed is raised to about?
- 45–60 degrees
- 10–15 degrees
- 0 degrees (flat)
- Head lowered
Answer: 45–60 degrees. It helps breathing and feeding; high Fowler’s is near 90 degrees.
- The blood pressure usually taken as normal for an adult is about?
- 120/80 mmHg
- 90/60 mmHg
- 140/100 mmHg
- 160/90 mmHg
Answer: 120/80 mmHg. This is the standard reference for a healthy adult.
Medical-surgical nursing questions
- The normal fasting blood glucose range (mg/dL) is?
- 70–100
- 40–60
- 100–140
- 140–200
Answer: 70–100. Fasting values above 126 mg/dL on repeat suggest diabetes.
- The universal donor blood group is?
- O negative
- AB positive
- A positive
- B negative
Answer: O negative. It has no A, B or Rh antigen, so it can be given to most people in emergencies.
- The universal recipient blood group is?
- AB positive
- O negative
- A negative
- B positive
Answer: AB positive. It has no antibodies against A, B or Rh, so it can receive any group.
- Which organ produces insulin?
- Pancreas
- Liver
- Kidney
- Spleen
Answer: Pancreas. The beta cells in the islets of Langerhans make insulin.
- Myocardial infarction (heart attack) is most commonly caused by?
- Blockage of a coronary artery
- Low calcium
- Viral infection
- Low blood sugar
Answer: Blockage of a coronary artery. The heart muscle is starved of blood and oxygen.
- Which electrolyte imbalance is dangerous for the heart and closely watched in renal failure?
- Hyperkalaemia (high potassium)
- Low chloride
- Low sodium only
- High calcium only
Answer: Hyperkalaemia. High potassium can cause serious cardiac arrhythmia.
- The normal haemoglobin level for an adult man (g/dL) is about?
- 13–17
- 5–7
- 8–10
- 20–25
Answer: 13–17. Below this range points to anaemia.
- A common sign of dehydration in an adult is?
- Decreased skin turgor and dry mucous membranes
- Swelling of the legs
- Weight gain
- Slow heart rate
Answer: Decreased skin turgor and dry mucous membranes. The skin is slow to spring back when pinched.
Community health nursing MCQs
- Under the Universal Immunization Programme, BCG vaccine protects mainly against?
- Tuberculosis
- Polio
- Measles
- Hepatitis B
Answer: Tuberculosis. BCG is given at birth to protect against serious forms of TB.
- Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS) is mainly used to treat?
- Dehydration from diarrhoea
- Fever
- Anaemia
- Malaria
Answer: Dehydration from diarrhoea. It replaces lost water and salts quickly and cheaply.
- Malaria is transmitted by the bite of?
- Female Anopheles mosquito
- Aedes mosquito
- Culex mosquito
- Housefly
Answer: Female Anopheles mosquito. Aedes spreads dengue, not malaria.
- Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin K
Answer: Vitamin A. It is needed for normal vision in dim light.
- An ASHA worker in India works mainly at which level?
- Village / community level
- District hospital
- Medical college
- State headquarters
Answer: Village / community level. ASHA is the first health link in the village.
- Pulse Polio Immunisation uses which vaccine?
- Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV)
- A nasal spray
- A tablet
- Only an intramuscular injection
Answer: Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV). It is given as drops in the mouth.
- Deficiency of Vitamin C causes?
- Scurvy
- Rickets
- Beriberi
- Pellagra
Answer: Scurvy. It causes bleeding gums and poor wound healing.
- Iodine deficiency in the diet leads to?
- Goitre
- Anaemia
- Night blindness
- Rickets
Answer: Goitre. The thyroid gland swells; iodised salt helps prevent it.
Midwifery and obstetrics questions
- The normal duration of human pregnancy is about?
- 40 weeks (280 days)
- 30 weeks
- 36 weeks
- 44 weeks
Answer: 40 weeks (280 days). Counted from the first day of the last menstrual period.
- Naegele’s rule is used to calculate?
- Expected date of delivery (EDD)
- Blood loss in labour
- Fetal weight
- Fetal heart rate
Answer: Expected date of delivery (EDD). It is worked out from the last menstrual period.
- The normal fetal heart rate is?
- 120–160 beats per minute
- 60–100
- 40–60
- 180–200
Answer: 120–160 beats per minute. Outside this range needs close monitoring.
- The first stage of labour ends with?
- Full dilatation of the cervix (10 cm)
- Delivery of the baby
- Delivery of the placenta
- Rupture of membranes
Answer: Full dilatation of the cervix. The cervix opens fully to about 10 cm.
- Which hormone stimulates uterine contractions during labour?
- Oxytocin
- Insulin
- Progesterone
- Thyroxine
Answer: Oxytocin. It causes the uterus to contract during labour and after birth.
- The most common cause of postpartum haemorrhage is?
- Uterine atony
- High blood pressure
- Anaemia
- Infection
Answer: Uterine atony. The uterus fails to contract and stays soft, so bleeding continues.
- Colostrum is?
- The first breast milk, rich in antibodies
- A vaccine
- A medicine
- Formula milk
Answer: The first breast milk, rich in antibodies. It protects the newborn and should not be thrown away.
- Folic acid in early pregnancy mainly helps prevent?
- Neural tube defects
- Diabetes
- High blood pressure
- Jaundice
Answer: Neural tube defects. It supports healthy development of the baby’s spine and brain.
Pharmacology MCQs for nursing exams
- The antidote for paracetamol (acetaminophen) overdose is?
- N-acetylcysteine
- Naloxone
- Atropine
- Vitamin K
Answer: N-acetylcysteine. It protects the liver from paracetamol damage.
- The antidote for opioid (morphine) overdose is?
- Naloxone
- Flumazenil
- Atropine
- Protamine
Answer: Naloxone. It quickly reverses opioid-induced breathing depression.
- The anticoagulant effect of warfarin is reversed by?
- Vitamin K
- Protamine sulphate
- Calcium gluconate
- Naloxone
Answer: Vitamin K. Protamine sulphate reverses heparin, not warfarin.
- The antidote for organophosphate (certain pesticide) poisoning is?
- Atropine
- Naloxone
- Vitamin K
- Flumazenil
Answer: Atropine. It blocks the excess effect of acetylcholine in such poisoning.
- Which route gives the fastest action of a drug?
- Intravenous (IV)
- Oral
- Subcutaneous
- Topical
Answer: Intravenous (IV). The drug enters the blood directly, so it acts quickest.
- Insulin is most commonly given by which route?
- Subcutaneous injection
- Oral tablet
- Only intramuscular
- Only rectal
Answer: Subcutaneous injection. It is absorbed steadily from the fat under the skin.
- Digoxin is mainly used to treat?
- Heart failure and certain arrhythmias
- Diabetes
- Asthma
- Epilepsy
Answer: Heart failure and certain arrhythmias. It strengthens and steadies the heartbeat.
- Before giving digoxin, the nurse must always check the?
- Apical pulse (heart rate)
- Temperature
- Respiratory rate
- Blood sugar
Answer: Apical pulse. Hold the dose and inform the doctor if the rate is below 60 per minute.
What is the RRB Nursing Superintendent 2026 exam status?
As per the official RRB regional pages, the Nursing Superintendent post comes under Centralised Employment Notice (CEN) No. 05/2026. Here are the dates that are confirmed in the public documents so far.
| Event | Date (per official RRB pages) |
|---|---|
| Notification published for CEN 05/2026 | 14-09-2026 |
| Application (Special Notice) published | 15-09-2026 |
| Exam Schedule document published | 18-10-2026 |
| CBT (exam) date | Scheduled, but not readable in the public PDFs as of 02-11-2026 |
The exact CBT date, vacancy count and eligibility could not be confirmed because the official CEN 05/2026 PDFs were not readable. Do not plan around any date you see on social media. Check these only from the official Railway Recruitment Boards portal and the official notification. For the subject-wise plan, read our RRB Nursing Superintendent syllabus 2026 guide, and see the full RRB Nursing Superintendent 2026 exam page on SeatBeat.
How do I practise for the full paper?
These 40 MCQs are a warm-up. The real gain comes from attempting full-length, timed papers in Hindi or English, with solutions, so you learn to manage speed and nerves together.
If your biggest struggle is time pressure, attempt one full mock every two or three days and note how many questions you leave. If your struggle is forgetting pharmacology, make a single sheet of antidotes and normal values and read it daily. If you are a repeat attempt and feel low, pick the three topics you scored worst in last time and fix only those first.
You can build this habit on the RRB Nursing Superintendent 2026 Full Test Series, which has 98 tests with detailed solutions. If you also want quick practice from nearby teaching exams, our BPSC TRE Science MCQs with answers can keep your basics sharp.
Your one step for today: Start with the free mock test, then mark the two topics where you lost the most marks and revise them tonight.
People also ask about RRB Nursing Superintendent questions
Is there negative marking in the RRB Nursing Superintendent exam?
The exact pattern and negative marking for CEN 05/2026 were not readable in the public official documents available as of November 2026. Confirm this from the official notification before you plan your attempt strategy.
Which subjects are asked in RRB Nursing Superintendent questions?
Nursing-based questions usually span fundamentals, medical-surgical, community health, midwifery and pharmacology, along with general awareness. Check the exact weightage in the official notification and the SeatBeat syllabus guide.
Can I practise these nursing MCQs in Hindi?
Yes. The SeatBeat test series for this exam is available in both Hindi and English with full solutions, so Hindi-medium aspirants can practise comfortably.
How many questions should I practise every day?
Aim for 40–50 fresh MCQs a day plus a revision of yesterday’s mistakes. Quality of review matters more than the raw number you attempt.
Where can I take a free RRB Nursing Superintendent mock test?
You can take Full Mock Test 1 free on SeatBeat and attempt it in a timed setting before moving to the complete test series.
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